You have a patient with Parkinson’s disease, and you want to get more dopamine into the brain. Dopamine is a polar molecule. How can you accomplish this best?
Give a lipid soluble precursor to dopamine which can convert in the brain Most drug work by Binding to a specific receptor on the cell A drug that occupies a receptor but does not activate the receptor is a antagonist The time between when a drug is administered and when there are observable effects is called the onset of action Adverse reactions to drugs occur because.
No drug has only one receptor it binds to Once a drug’s peak effect has been reached, further doses of the drug will increase efficacy false WEEK 2 GEN After a drug is administered, it must get to the site where it exerts its action. This phase of pharmacokinetics is called distribution.
Which pregnancy category indicates that animal studies and clinical trials show a significant risk to the mother and/or fetus that clearly outweighs any benefit that might be derived category x Which pregnancy category indicates that either risks found in animal studies were not validated in human studies, or there were no risks found in animal studies b.
The Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetics Act said that drugs must be safe before they can be marketed. This law passed in 1038 An important disadvantage of administering a drug intravenously is that the potential for infection is higher than for oral administration The drug Levoxine was renamed as Levoxyl because it had been mistaken as Lanoxin Most drug metabolism occurs in the liver.
An example of pharmacogenetics is People of Asian descent tend to need a lower dose of Warfarin than people of African descent do Drugs may not be sold in the United States until they have been approved by fda The Food and Drug Administration In the US, controlled substances are drugs whose use, distribution, and prescribing is determined by the Controlled Substances Act of 1970 and it amendments After a drug is administered, it goes to the site of action.
Soon after this, the blood level of the drug begins to decline. This decline in blood levels best represents metabolism The American law to regulate narcotics said that prescriptions would be required for large volumes of drugs and that records must be kept. This law was passed in 1914 Tallman lettering is designed to improve safety If a rapid onset of action is important, which route of administration would you choose intravenous.
Binding to plasma proteins can affect distribution, metabolism and elimination Factors which affect pharmacokinetics or dynamics in the elderly include drug interactions Which pregnancy category indicates that controlled studies in humans have not shown risk to the mother or fetus A Which pregnancy category indicates that there is evidence of human fetal risk but that use of the drug might still be acceptable if the woman is very ill and there are not safer, effective drug choices D.
Drug K can be administered by mouth or parenterally (by injection in vein or tissue). However, the drug dose needed to produce therapeutic blood levels is three times higher when the drug is administered by mouth. Which of the following provides the best explanation for this phenomenon first-pass liver metabolism of oral dose Which of the following affects drug absorption from the site of administration solubility A teratogen is a drug that is likely to cause birth defects.
The incidence and severity of adverse reactions caused by a drug determines which property of that drug safety/toxicity For the breastfed infant, factors which enhance drug excretion into breast milk include Maternal drug level is high Which of the following would best apply to the term, drug interactions (as opposed to contraindications, precautions, and adverse reactions).
One drug may counteract or enhance the effect of another drug the patient is taking The amended American law requiring that drugs be effective was passed in 62 The 1914 Harrison Law required that 1prescriptions be used for large quantities of narcotics The 100,000 lives campaign suggested that nationwide implementation of 6 interventions could save 100,000 lives each year.
Which is one of these interventions We should give a beta-blocker drug early on and at discharge for patients with heart attacks A drug company is conducting a “Phase III” study on a new drug.
Which activity will be occuring The drug will be tested on patients who might benefit from it Advanced practice nurses (Nurse Practitioner or Nurse Anesthetist)may perform all of the following activites EXCEPT Label and dispense the drug Select the true statement about drug allergies Symptoms range from mild rash and swelling to airway constriction and shock.
Which of the following is recommended by the FDA to reduce medication errors Use of bar codes on patient name bands Recently the FDA has recommended the use of Tall man lettering, such as DOPamine rather than dopamine. The purpose of this is to reduce drug name confusion that could cause errors S.
Henry has been taking digoxin for many years. Knowing that digoxin is highly plasma protein bound, what do you predict will occur if you give him a second drug that also binds plasma proteins the potential for digoxin toxicity will increase A drug company is conducting a “Phase I Clinical Trial” study on a new drug. Which activity will be occuring The drug will be tested in a small number of healthy volunteers Pharmacists are licensed to perform all of the following activities.
EXCEPT Prescribe which drug the patient needs The 100,000 lives campaign suggested that nationwide implementation of 6 interventions could save 100,000 lives each year. Which is one of these interventions The best people to manage the care of a patient on a general medical surgical unit who has developed severe respiratory distress is the rapid response team.
Which property of drugs is determined by the degree that a drug can be absorbed and transported by the body to its active site bioavailability Not all drugs in use today have been rated for safety in pregnancy. Of those that have been rated, which classification represents the greatest risk x Drug X is an acidic drug that is largely un-ionized in acidic environments.
Alkalinizing the urine would __________urinary elimination of this drug increase When a drug is heavily plasma protein bound, the fraction of the drug that exerts the pharmacological effect is the free drug WEEK 3 INFLAMMATION A relatively common adverse reaction to diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is sedation In addition to decreasing inflammation, NSAIDS are used to reduce pain.
A third line agent for treating rheumatoid arthritis is abatacept Drugs that interact with H1 receptors may be useful in hay fever Special considerations for administering glucocorticoids include A diabetic will likely need more insulin Azathioprine (Imuran) is used for Suppressing inflammation in severe rheumatoid arthritis.
Which of the following would most likely be given to prevent a patient from rejecting an organ transplant azathioprine Glucocorticoids can be administered by many routes. Select ALL routes by which these drugs can be given oral Ketorolac might be given for Muscle pain Adverse effects of glucocorticoids include Mood changes and mask infections Azathioprine (Imuran) is used for is an immunosuppressant and prevents rejection of transplanted organs An asthmatic patient with a transplanted kidney begins a course of glucocorticoids. Which adverse effect should be watched for gastrointestinal bleeding
The mechanism of action of NSAIDS is to Inhibit the enzyme cyclooxygenase, preventing synthesis of prostaglandin and thromboxane Which of the following would most likely be given to prevent a patient from rejecting an organ transplant Tacrolimus Adverse effects of glucocorticoids include Mood changes and mask infections Drugs that interact with H1 receptors attach to which tissue.
Blood vessels and nasal airway Glucocorticoid preparations are available by which routes all of above Indications for H1 blockers include all of the following EXCEPT asthma When systemic steroids are given for replacement (as in Addison’s disease), doses are generally _____________ than when they are given for inflammation (such as in an acute asthma attack).
Smaller and given for a longer period of time Blockade of the muscarinic receptors by an H1 blocker would result in less motion sickness Drugs used to treat allergies often act to block the effect of histamine In the treatment of allergic rhinitis, nasal sprays of fluticasone are preferred over oral pills of prednisone because there are fewer side effects.
When ASPIRIN is used to reduce fever in an adult, the usual dose is 650 mg as needed Let’s assume a patient’s only supply of adrenocorticotropin (ACTH) is from the pituitary. In other words, they do not have and ACTH-secreting tumor.
What would happen if dexamethasone was given for several days Blood levels of the body’s natural glucocorticoid, (cortisol) would drop If a patient had a tumor that was secreting adrenocorticotropin (ACTH), what would happen if dexamethasone was given for several days Blood levels of the body’s natural glucocorticoid, (cortisol) would remain high mr.
Kim has had a kidney transplant and has been taking cyclosporine. His serum creatinine is going up. What is the best explanation of this Adverse drug reaction and transplant rejection must both be considered Assuming an NSAID has already been tried in rheumatoid arthritis.
Which dug would most likely be tried next hydroxychloroquine An adult athlete has a sore muscle following an intense workout. Which drug would be most helpful Ibuprofen 400 mg orally There is genetic variability between people’s COX genes.
What impact might this have The most efficacious NSAID drug will vary by individual Newer generation antihistamines, such as fexofenadine (ALLEGRA), are less likely to enter __________ tissue than the older drugs such as the classic diphenhydramine (BENADRYL) brain A patient is to receive ketorolac (TORADOL) for 3 days after surgery.
This drug will act to Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis When comparing antihistamines such as the classic diphenhydramine (BENADRYL) to the more recently marketed fexofenadine (ALLEGRA), you would say that fexofenadine is less likely to cause dry mouth When glucocorticoid drugs have been given systemically in high dose for several weeks or more.
The dose should be tapered off slowly when the patient no longer needs the steroid Loratadine (CLARITIN) is an antihistamine useful in treating runny nose associated with allergies When ASPIRIN is used as an antiplatelet aggregator to prevent heart or brain attacks, the dose prescribed is 80-325 mg each day WEEK 4 INFLAMMATION The cephalosporins are similar in structure and function to the penicillins Most patients being treated for TB will be taking medication for [x1] months. Fill in the blank using two numbers with the word “to” in between.
Such as: 1 to 2, or 2 to 5. DO NOT put in any punctuation or other symbols or words 6 to 12 You have good evidence that an antibiotic is working to resolve the infection when The temperature and white blood cell count are normal What teaching is important for patients receiving a tetracyline antibiotic.
Avoid exposure to sun Examples of antibiotics in the cephalosporin class include cefazolin, cephalexin, ceftriaxone Match the drug to its main mechanism of action Penicillininhibit cell wall synthesis Sulfonamidesantimetabolite, competition for folate Aminoglycosidesinhibit protein synthesis.
Fluoroquinolonesinhibit nucleic acid synthesis A patient has developed a fungal infection in the groin. The drug of choice is topical nystatin A patient is diagnosed with tuberculosis. Which treatment would most likely help isoniazid and rifampin A patient who has been on antibiotics for several weeks now has an infection with fungus and a bacteria resistant to the antibiotic which was previously taken.
This patient is said to have superinfection Resistance to antibiotics can be minimized by limiting use of prophylactic antibiotics Examples of antibiotics in the penicillin class include amoxicillin, nafcillin, piperacillin Most antibiotic therapy lasts for 10 days. Zithromycin however is typically dosed for [x1] days.
Fill in the blank using only a single number. If the text has more than one anser, either will be accepted. DO NOT put in both or any punctuation or words other than the numeric number (for example: 1 not one) 3-5 A patient is infected with methicillin-resistant S. aureus in the lungs.
Which would help IV vancomycin A teenager has acne. Which medication is most likely to help tetracycline A “superinfection” refers to Overgrowth of undesired microbes when normal flora has been destroyed by antibiotic therapy Patient teaching for sulfonamides could include Avoid sun/tanning exposure while on drug due to risk of photosensitivity rash.
Ototoxicity (ear) and nephrotoxicity (kidney) are serious side effects of which of the following drug classes aminoglycosides Infections caused by beta-lactamase producing bacteria may be treated with An antibiotic prepared with an enzyme inhibitor such as clavulanate You can do a web search for the blue cross formulary of approved drugs. A patient insured by Blue Cross has a urinary tract infection and is being considered for therapy with Septra DS (Double Strength brand name Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole).
You know that Prior approval is required to have Blue Cross pay for the brand Septra DS. Match the drug to its mechanism of action or target organism Rifampininhibit nucleic acid synthesis Trimethopriminterferes with folic acid metabolism Cephalosporinsinhibits cell wall synthesis While making a home visit to a patient, you want to verify that the patient understands his medications.
The patient tells you he took his cefuroxime once a day for the first 3 days, then twice a day for 3 days and now he is up to three times a day. Which would be your best response May I see the directions on the bottle?
That’s a very unusual way to take an antibiotic. With therapeutic doses of gentamicin, blood concentrations of 8-10 mcg/ml are achievable. You get a report from the laboratory that there is a bacteria in the patient’s blood that has an gentamicin “MIC” of 2 mcg/ml.
This means You could treat the infection with gentamicin The main use of metronidazole is in the treatment of Intestinal amebiasis and anaerobic infections Martha is a 70-year-old female who is brought from home to the emergency department by her daughter with a three-day history of “flu” and a one-day history of coughing purulent sputum.
She has no comorbidities except mild congestive heart failure. Her vital signs are: temp 38. 1, pulse 100, respirations 26, BP130/80, 92% oxygen saturation on room air. Chemistries labs are normal. The WBC is 16,000 with left shift indicating new infection. Her chest X-ray shows an abnormal consolidation but no effusion. She is allergic to penicillin, which caused a rash.
Should she receive drug treatment for an infection Yes, a fluoroquinolone such as levofloxacin would be effective outpatient treatment Sharon is a 27-year-old pregnant female who was convinced by television advertising to seek prenatal care.
Due to her history of IVDA, she took an HIV test that was positive. To protect her own health and avoid having an HIV positive baby, treatment should be zidovudine and 2 other HIV meds starting now and continuing through and after pregnancy With therapeutic doses of ticarcillin, brain (CSF) concentrations of 15 mcg/ml are acheivable.
You get a report from the laboratory that there is a bacteria in the patient’s CSF that has an ticarcillin “MIC” of 128 mcg/ml. This means The bacteria is resistant to ticarcillin Sue is a 19 year old sexually active female being seen in a family planning clinic for birth control.
Her routine annual screening for chlamydia was positive despite being asymptomatic. She has no drug allergies. Should she be treated? With what drug(s), dose and for how long Yes, she should be treated with Azithromycin (x 1 dose).
The main use of the sulfonamide drugs such as sulfamethoxazole with trimethoprim (Bactrim) is in the treatment of urinary tract infections Infections caused by beta-lactamase producing bacteria may be treated with An antibiotic prepared with an enzyme inhibitor such as clavulanate Serious adverse reactions to the aminoglycoside antibiotics such as gentamicin are kidney failure and loss of hearing.
You can do a web search for the formulary of an insurance provider. A patient insured by Aetna has an infection and is being considered for therapy with Zyvox (Linezolid). You know that Precertification is required to have insurance pay for the Zyvox (Linezolid).
Azithromycin can be useful for treating Some community-acquired pneumonias and sexually transmitted infections WEEK 5 VACCINES/ COAGULATION At 3 months old, which vaccinations should have been given diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, haemophilus influenza, Hepatitis B, polio The effectiveness of a vaccine can be measured by Measuring the amount of antibody in the blood You are the advise nurse and get a call that someone is having a heart attack.
You advise the patient to take an ASA and go directly emergency department Knee surgery puts patients at higher risk for blood clots so discharge teaching must emphasize schedule routine lab draws to monitor the clotting time Health care workers are offered the Hepatitis B vaccination series.
It is usually recommended: to follow up with blood titers to ensure immunity has been achieved Warfarin (coumadin) is an anticoagulant that reaches therapeutic levels in days Its the flu season and your best friend has a 5 year old daughter. she has concerns about her child getting the flu vaccine.
You know the cdc guidelines and suggest: the child receive the flu mist nasally if advised by her physician the largest impact on world health includes hygiene and vaccinations a predictable side effect of either heparin (liquaemin) or warfarin (coumadin).
Is bleeding antidote for warfarin sodium (coumadin) is vitamin k an antidote for liquaemin heparin is protamine sulfate effectiveness of a vaccine can be measured by measuring the amount of antibody in the blood person is experiencing a brain attack or stroke, as advise nurse you tell patient to take an aspirin and get transported immediately to the er Common side effects from vaccines include slight fever and pain at the injection site.
Which of the following is an example of active immunization An elderly patient receives an influenza vaccination every year which causes the person to produce antibodies against influenza virus An elderly person residing in a skilled nursing facility needs Tetanus and diptheria toxoids every 10 years and flu shot annually.
Your 80 year old patient tells you he takes the herb ginko and vitamin E to “improve his aging memory”. You are alert to the potential for drug interaction with which of his other medications warfarin (COUMADIN A healthy 47 year old who lives with his healthy wife and works in a library, should receive which vaccination?
TdaP if not received within the last 10 years A healthy, low-risk child who has received all scheduled immunization comes in for a 5 year old, preschool check up. What immunizations will be given Boosters for DTaP, IPV, varicella and MMR.
Pneumococcal, Hep A series, and meningococcal should be started about this age. Lab tests are done to monitor anticoagulant dosing. For which patient would you hold the coumadin? The INR is 5 (normal is 1) Lab tests are done to monitor anticoagulant dosing.
For which patient would you hold the heparin The aPTT is 100 (normal is 25-40 seconds) A 60 year old male has risk factors for a myocardial infarction (heart attack) because he smokes, has high blood pressure and has several family members who had heart attacks. What drug should be given to prevent a heart attack Aspirin.
Your 65 year old patient has chronic atrial fibrillation of the heart and is at risk for throwing a blood clot to the brain. What drug would be the best choice to prevent blood clot development in this patient?
Coumadin (WARFARIN) A patient complained of weakness on one side of the body and had trouble speaking. They are seen 30 minutes later in the ER. Brain scan confirms a non-hemorragic stoke. What drug would be the most likely choice in the Emergency Room to restore blood flow to the brain Tissue Plasminogen Activator (TPA) A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism.
Appropriate therapy would be Continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. One of your friends tells you that giving a child multiple vaccinations for different diseases at the same time increases the risk of harmful side effects and can overload the immune system. Your response to this friend should be There have been many studies showing vaccine efficacy when given in combination.
Parents save time and money with fewer office visits, which might improve compliance. Kids prefer fewer trips to the clinic and fewer shots too. A healthy 47 year old who lives with his healthy wife and works in a library, should receive which vaccination?
TdaP if not received within the last 10 years At the 2 month checkup, an infant should receive (along with other vaccines not listed) Rotavirus Your 80 year old patient tells you he takes the herb ginko and vitamin E to “improve his aging memory”.
You are alert to the potential for drug interaction with which of his other medications warfarin (COUMADIN Which of the following is an example of passive immunization An unborn baby receives antibodies from the mom across the placenta One day after knee surgery, a patient is started on both heparin and coumadin.
The rationale for doing this is Heparin works right away and provides anticoagulation until the coumadin starts working a few days later. WEEK 6 ANS The neurotransmitter at adrenergic nerve endings is norepinephrine.
Your patient is scheduled for a dilated eye exam. She is given atropine-like eye drops to dilate the pupils. You should teach her to avoid driving and hazardous activities until she regains ability to focus. A drug that acts like or stimulates the sympathetic nervous system would cause: increased heart rate A drug that acts like acetylcholine would work at which sites? Neuromuscular junction of the somatic nervous system.
The recptor types occupied by norepinephrine include 1 and 2 The recptor types occupied by acetylcholine include 3 and 4 Which of the following components of the nervous system is specifically responsible for “fight or flight” responses Sympathetic Nervous System Norepinephrine is inactivated by 2 and 3 The neurotransmitter at PNS ganglia is acetylcholine.
Alpha 2 receptors are located: On the presynaptic nerve of the sympathetic nervous system Acetlycholine is inactivated by acelycholinesterase. Which of the following components of the nervous system is specifically responsible for vegitative, resting functions?
Parasympathetic Nervous System A drug that acts like acetylcholine would work at which sites? Neuromuscular junction of the somatic nervous system A drug that acts like or stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system would cause: bladder contraction.
The neurotransmitter at cholinergic nerve endings is acetylcholine Alpha 2 receptors are located On the presynaptic nerve of the sympathetic nervous system The neurotransmitter at PNS ganglia is acteylcholine Which of the following components of the nervous system has a long preganglionic fiber, and short post-ganglionic fiber Parasympathetic Nervous System.
A patient developed urinary retention after surgery. She was prescribed bethanechol (Urecholine). This drug will: Activate muscarinic receptors The antidote for overdose with a parasympathomimetic drug is: atropine Atropine has which pharmacological property? dilation of pupil Mr. Jones is a 75 year old man who was admitted to the hospital because he fainted at home.
His heart rate was only 40 and his BP was low. What drug should be given? The anticholinergic drug atopine. You are a trainer for an athlete just started on atenolol. What side effects would you be alert for? fatigue in septic shock, blood vessels throughout the body vasodilate, dropping the blood pressure.
The heart often speeds up to compensate (tachycardia). A drug which could prevent this reflex tachycardia is: Metoprolol Your patient came in with the following symptoms: fever, flushed dry skin, confusion, blurred vision, and constipation. If you suspect atropine overdose, what should you give this patient? physostigmine For many years, patients with psychosis were treated with phenothiazines like chlorproMAZINE (Thorazine). Troubling side effects included anticholinergic problems such as: Constipation.
Which of the following is a predictable adverse effect of clonidine (CATAPRES), an alpha-2 agonist? drowsiness The drug albuterol is a Beta2 agonist. It can be used to Treat asthma Atropine has which pharmacological effect constipation and decreased GI motility Phenylephrine (NEOSYNEPHRINE)is an alpha-1 agonist.
A predictable adverse effect of this drug is hypertension A patient receives atropine preoperatively. Why? To decrease respiratory secretions and keep heart rate up Which of the following is a predictable adverse effect of clonidine (CATAPRES), an alpha-2 agonist?hypotension and dizziness.
A patient developed urinary retention after surgery. She was prescribed bethanechol (Urecholine). Adverse effects of this drug include: abdominal cramps, hypotension, excess salivation Your patient came in with the following symptoms: fever, flushed dry skin, confusion, blurred vision, and constipation.
If you suspect atropine overdose, what should you give this patient? physostigmine For many years, patients with psychosis were treated with phenothiazines like chlorproMAZINE. Troubling side effects included anticholinergic problems such as: Urinary retention.
A diabetic patient has developed nerve conduction problems in her stomach and the muscle is not contracting normally (gastroparesis). When she eats, food sits for a long time in her stomach and she feels full and nauseated. We might help this problem by giving metoclopramide (REGLAN) which (among other actions) increases GI motility.
Which provides the best explanation for how this works? metoclopramide enhances the effect of acetylcholine WEEK 7 ANS2/CHF Which is the only diuretic shown to prolong life in patients with heart failure spironolactone A nurse should hold (not administer) Lasix if: the blood pressure is low The most widely prescribed class of diuretics are the: thiazides A side effect of Lumigan (bimatoprost) is: brown coloration of iris Which drug is administered parenterally in emergency situations, such as treating acute, life-threatening allergic reactions? epinephrine (Adrenalin).
Which of the following drug classes would be the BEST choice of drugs to treat acute bronchospasm in asthma beta-2 agonists The effects of sympathomimetic drugs include urinary retention. A parasympathomimetic drug such as physostigmine is used to treat urinary retention.
The drug of first choice for treating mild heart failure is lisinopril An angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor like lisinopril Sympathomimetic drugs are likely to cause which of the following adverse effects 2, 3, 4 only Phenylephrine (NEOSYNEPHRINE)is an alpha-1 agonist.
A predictable adverse effect of this drug is hypertension A drug with good evidence of its ability to prolong life in patients with heart failure is: atenolol A nurse should hold (not administer) Lasix if he potassium level is low A nurse should hold (not administer) Lasix if: the potassium level is low Which drug is administered parenterally in emergency situations, such as treating acute, life-threatening allergic reactions?
pinephrine (Adrenalin The drug of choice for treating mild heart failure is: An angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor like lisinopril A parasympathomimetic drug such as physostigmine is used to treat urinary retention Drugs used to treat glaucoma might act to: increase the outflow of aqueous humor the most widely prescribed class of diuretics are the thiazides The effects of sympathomimetic drugs include urinary retention Phenylephrine (NEOSYNEPHRINE)is an alpha-1 agonist.
A predictable adverse effect of this drug is hypertension Drugs such as an alpha-1 agonist,that mimic the sympathetic nervous system would cause pupil dilation Drugs used to treat glaucoma might act to: increase the outflow of aqueous humor Atropine has which pharmacological property dilation of pupil A patient taking spironolactone (ALDACTONE) should be taught about adverse effects such as high potassium levels in the blood If a person has heart failure, the cardiac output is lower than is needed for adequate tissue blood flow.
How should you improve cardiac output in a person who has lung congestion, jugular vein distention, tachycardia, and ankle edema? decrease afterload. ACE inhibitors may cause cough because bradykinin accumulates
Which of the following drugs would be effective in treating hypertension prazosin (MINIPRESS) Your patient has high blood pressure and you are considering giving him Beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Which of the following questions should you ask prior to ordering a beta blocker like propranolol (INDERAL)?
Do you have asthma? Drugs that improve morbidity and mortality in heart failure include ACE inhibitors A brown eyed runner needs medication to reduce intra ocular pressure. Which is the best choice latanoprost The mechanism of action of a direct acting beta agonist is activation of post-synaptic receptors Propranolol (INDERAL) adverse effects include all of the following EXCEPT hypertension.
A pregnant asthmatic patient leaves home for the birth clinic with the contractions are 10 minutes apart. She takes a dose of albuterol (PROVENTIL) before leaving home. What effect would you anticipate the albuterol would have Labor will be slowed as B-2 agonists relax the uterus and dilate the airways. A person with Stage C heart failure would most likely benefit from: An angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor, a beta blocker and a diuretic.
The patient is in mild to moderate heart failure but is stable and is seen in the outpatient clinic. The heart rate is slightly elevated at 90. BP is normal at 110/70. The patient receives carvedilol (COREG) to Reduce afterload so the heart doesn’t have to work so hard Drugs that improve morbidity and mortality in heart failure include:
The beta blocker carvedilol WEEK 8 HYPERTENSION AND LIPIDS Of all Americans who are diagnosed with hypertension, about what per cent keep their blood pressure in the recommended range Less than 1/3.
What is a normal adult dose of Plendi 5-10 mg/day The Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor, enalapril (Vasotec) is associated with which adverse reaction(s) in as many as 1/3 of those who take it? Cough and rash In an otherwise healthy person, when would you start drug therapy for hyperlipidemia When the LDLs are over 160 mg/dL All of the following drugs classes are used to treat hypertension EXCEPT beta-2 agonists A patient has a BP of 138/84.
What condition would indicate a need to treat this patient with hypertensive medication? Diabetes Which is the best approach to treating hard to control Stage 1 hypertension? start with a low dose of one drug and increase the dose slowly. If it is not effective change drugs or add a second drug at a low dose What lab work should be done to monitor a patient’s response to atorvastatin (LIPITOR)
Total Cholesterol, HDL cholesterol, LDL cholesterol Enalapril (VASOTEC) is an example of an antihypertensive medicne from which class? ACE inhibitor The first drug usually prescribed for managing high cholesterol levels comes from which drug class statins.
Which of the following is a diuretic diuril The Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor, enalapril (Vasotec) is associated with which adverse reaction(s) in as many as 1/3 of those who take it? cough and rash Most patients with a blood pressure greater than 160/100 should be treated with A thiazide diuretic and one drug from another class.
Teaching for a person taking an ACE inhibitor should include report feelings of faintness to the health care provider The serious, potentially life-threatening adverse effect of atorvastatin (LIPITOR), particularly if it is combi.